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  1. #41
    TheLegendaryJP's Avatar
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    Don't shoot the messenger lol

    Like I said I think more always has to do with a losing defense in such a case and the transfer of ownership alone ( perhaps showing bad faith ) is just one of 2 or more reasons

    Look at it this way, it isnt the nail in the coffin but rather the pillow lol

  2. #42
    Bloody Hell
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    Personally, I am more of the 'devil's advocate'. While it's understandable that things like that depend on a case by case basis, it's obvious that certain things apply across the board. It's also understandable that attorneys don't share information freely, however generic it might be. At the same time, in my opinion, the original poster asked a simple question that wasn't given a proper answer until I stirred the waters somewhat

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  3. #43
    TheLegendaryJP's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Acro View Post
    Personally, I am more of the 'devil's advocate'.
    I just like to argue lol

  4. #44
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    Rather than start another thread I'll post this here. If I have a domain and trade mark ,would someone stand a chance with a later issued trade mark to take domain from me ?. Similarily, do UDRP panelists takle any note of geographic and class limitations of trade marks ?. i.e. if I have trade mark in UK and someone else has, for arguments sake, earlier mark in USA who would succeed under UDRP or is there no hard and fast ruling ?.

    DG

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