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Originally Posted by slobizman For the sake of this discussion, let's assume first use does apply. Consider this scenario then:
1. Individual buys domain name in year 1. Parks it.
2. A company starts usnig the term in its business (no trademark) in year 2.
3. In year 3, the domain is sold to a new holder who parks it.
Do the first use rights of the original domain buyer inure to the person he sold it to in year 3? Or does the company using it in Year 2, trump the new buyer in year 3? |
There have been cases where if someone buys a domain, it is considered a new registration. Since there was only a parking page on the domain, there is no goodwill associated with the domain (as opposed to buying an established active site and buying the "goodwill" associated with the site and keeping it as an active site.).
As far as TMs, they could establish common law TMs which is very possible they would have. (then again, they would try to prove that you only registered it to make money off of their product/service)